MCQ Obstetrics 29

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A 32-year-old woman comes to the hospital for an elective repeat cesarean delivery. Four years ago she had a primary cesarean delivery for a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. Two years ago she chose to have an elective repeat cesarean delivery rather than attempt a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). Her prenatal course was uncomplicated except that she has mitral valve prolapse. An echocardiograph demonstrated the mitral valve prolapse, but no other structural cardiac disease. Which of the following is the correct management of this patient?

A. Administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the procedure
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately after the procedure
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics for 24 hours after the procedure
D. Administer oral antibiotics 6 hours after the procedure
E. No antibiotics are needed

Answer with Explanation

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Category: Obstetrics MCQs



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