MCQ Obstetrics 25

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A 34-year-old woman comes the physician because of lower abdominal cramping. The cramping started 2 days ago. Examination is unremarkable except for a pelvic examination that reveals a 10-week sized uterus. Urine hCG is positive, and pelvic ultrasound reveals a 10-week intrauterine pregnancy with a fetal heart rate of 160. The patient states that she is not sure whether to keep the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Counsel the patient or refer to an appropriate counselor
B. Notify the patient's parents
C. Notify the patient's partner
D. Schedule a termination of pregnancy
E. Tell the patient that she is likely to have a miscarriage

Answer

Category: Obstetrics MCQs

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